Original Languages and Biblical Interpretation


Don’t anyone tell Jim West, but every time he opines on the necessity of biblical languages for proper biblical study, I always think, “Why does the New Testament quote the Greek translation of the Hebrew Old Testament, then?”

I also wonder how he reconciles this with the history of Baptists in America, whose early ministers tended to be non- university -trained types who farmed and raised cattle like the members of their congregations. Which I gather raised more than a few eyebrows among the other denominations that stressed education for ministers, to say nothing of what the Roman Catholic clergy must have thought!


7 thoughts on “Original Languages and Biblical Interpretation

  1. take a look at Glenn Miller’s fantastically brilliant ‘Piety and Intellect’. he discusses the issue of theological education in the states, including the period you mention above.

    and why did the authors of the nt quote the ot in greek? because they didn’t have the king james, of course.

  2. The original Aramaic that contain the very words of Jesus, of course, Jim. Never mind all the available versions seem to come from the fourth century AD.

    You know. All that great Internet Aramaic NT scholarship.

  3. “Glenn Miller’s fantastically brilliant ‘Piety and Intellect’”

    Mounce’s “Basics of Biblical Greek”

    Listening to Jim West pontificate about who is or isn’t “biblically or theologically inclined”

  4. Chuck,

    You have erred twice – first, to take on the Doktor and then to diss the KJV?

    Unless of course, you are dissing all the other KJV’s but the 1611.

    Unless, I’ll be praying for you 🙂

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